40 bài đọc hiểu bùi văn vinh (có lời giải chi tiết)

Đọc hiểu

In the explosion of the linguistic life cycle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to

learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never

completely master a foreign language, especially in Phonology – hence the ubiquitous foreign

accent. Their development often “fossilizes” into permanent error patterns that no teaching or

correction can undo. Of course, there are great individual differences, which depend on effort,

attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for

the best adults in the best circumstances

Many explanations have been advanced for children’s superiority; they exploit Motherese

(the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children), make errors unself￾consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and

have not first language to interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is

known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence is calling these social and

motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out:

sheer age

Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They

tested Korean and Chinese – born students at the University of Illinois who had spent a least ten

years in the United States. The immigrants were give a list of 276 simple English sentences, half

of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the United States

between the age of 3 and 7 performed identically to American – born students. Those who arrived

between ages 8 and 15 did worse the latter they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39

did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated to their age of arrival

Question 1: The passage mainly discussed

A. adult differences in learning a foreign language

B. children’s ability to learn a language

C. the age factor in learning languages fast

D. research into language acquisition

Question 2: From the passage, it can be inferred that “Phonology” is the study of

A. he grammar of language

B. the rules of a language

C the vocabulary of a language

D. the sound system of a language

Question 3: The word “cap” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to

A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level

Question 4: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all of the

following reasons EXCEPT

A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk

C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words

Question 5: The word “unrelated” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to

A. unconnected B. unfamiliar C. unclassified D. unidentified

Question 6: In the experiment in the passage, the Psychologists discovered

A. most students had lived in the U.S for more that 10 years

B. older students were unable to learn English

C. young students learned English best

D. students who arrived late were worst of all

Question 7: The word “who” in paragraph 3 refers to

A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans C. students D. colleagues

Question 8: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample number of

immigrants?

A. To compare different age groups

B. To detect differences in nationalities

C. To confirm different language characteristics

D. To measure the use of grammar

The time when human crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems remote

to us today, but actually represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when polished

stone implements and bows and arrows were already being used and dogs had already been

domesticated

When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found the woods and plains

dominated by three types of American mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from

today’s elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward-curving tusks. They

had arrived on the continent hundreds of thousands of years before their followers. The woody

mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North America, and the imperial

mammoth of the South, together with their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land.

Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these elephants, as shown by

numerous spear points found with mammoth remains

Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively

sudden and widespread extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and mastodons

disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African elephants survived.

Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected

with their extinction? Perhaps, but at that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans were

still widely settled and not very numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have prevailed over

the mammoth to such an extent

Question 9: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?

A. Migration from Siberia to Alaska

B. Techniques used to hunt mammoths

C. The prehistory of humans

D. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World

Question 10: The word “implements” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. tools B. ornaments C. houses D. carvings

Question 11: The phrase “these early migrants” in paragraph 2 refers to _

A. mammoths B. humans C. dogs D. mastodons

Question 12: Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?

A. Alaska

B. the central portion of North America

C. the southern part of North America

D. South America

Question 13: It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they

A. had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia

B. had never seen mammoth before

C. brought mammoths with them from the Old World

D. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths

Question 14: Which of the following could be best substitute for the word “remains” in

paragraph 2?

A. bones B. drawings C. footprints D. spear points

Question 15: The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoth

A. Humans hunted them to extinction

B. The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply

C. The cause of their extinction is not definitely known

D. Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct

THE DIGITAL DIVIDE

Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the

Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and explore

areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and

business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace.

Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the

world’s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the

population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of

U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26

percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic communications

necessity –the telephone –does not occur just in developing nations. On some Native American

reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections

may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs.

Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an income

over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in low-income, rural

households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of

those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents have

access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11

percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and

children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide between the

populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income,

race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural

and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female households are

connected..

Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics,

and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20

percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The

result is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs

with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science

were offered the highest salaries of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949.

Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country

are wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet

connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are

eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many

of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high

concentrations of low-income students.

Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between

groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge

and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used

to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford

the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone is not

enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As

technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be seen as a

means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students

can benefit from its power.

Question 16. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2?

A. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage

B. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet

C. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all

D. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet

Question 17. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement

“Although the number...............or the Internet.” in the paragraph 2?

A. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the

world is not increasing fast enough.

B. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don't have

their own computer terminals.

C. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has

been increasing every year.

D. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but

most people in the world still do not have connections.

Question 18. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term

"digital divide?"

A. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet

B. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users

C. The number of Internet users in developing nations

D. Segments of the population with Internet access

Question 19. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph

3?

A. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society

B. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place

C. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups

D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now

Question 20. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the

field of computer technology?

A. They do not have an interest in technology.

B. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries.

C. They are not admitted to the degree programs.

D. They do not possess the educational qualifications.

Question 21. The word “concentrations” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. confidence B. protections C. numbers D. support

Question 22. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access?

A. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem.

B. Technology will be more helpful in three years.

C. Better computers need to be designed.

D. Schools should provide newer computers for students.

Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a

jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation,

based on group organization and attitudes.

In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group

contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each

member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and

goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.

While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterature societies, secondary

cooperation is characteristic of many modern societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals

devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the

group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members perform

tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige,

or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.

In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies

the shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization

is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it

breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not,

strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic

cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.

Question 23. What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?

A. To offer a brief definition of cooperation

B. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict

C. To urge readers to cooperate more often

D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes

Question 24. The word cherished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _

A. agreed on B. prized C. defined D. set up

Question 25. Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by

information in the passage?

A. It is an ideal that can never be achieved

B. It was confined to prehistoric times

C. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to

cooperate

D. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing

skills

Question 26. According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary

cooperation?

A. To get rewards for themselves

B. To defeat a common enemy

C. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation

D. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds

Question 27. Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined

in the fourth paragraph?

A. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow

B. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party

C. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades

D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company

Question 28. Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?

A. Accommodation B. Latent conflict

C. Tertiary cooperation D. Antagonistic cooperation

Question 29. The word fragile in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

A. poorly planned B. involuntary C. inefficient D. easily broken

Question 30. Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?

A. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic

B. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations

C. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms

D. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion

Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the

classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly

meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.

One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because

reading aloud was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical

development of silent reading have revealed that it became the usual mode of reading for most

adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character.

The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers.

As the number of readers increases, the number of potential listeners decline and thus there was

some reduction in the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common,

so came the flourishing of reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway

carriages and offices, where reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers.

Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books

should be used for information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials

such as newspapers was in some mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still

in education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was

replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialized

readership on the other.

By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes

to books and to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader.

The social, cultural and technological changes in the century had greatly altered what the

term “reading” implied.

Question 31. Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because

A. few people could read to themselves.

B. people relied on reading for entertainment.

C. there were few places available for private reading

D. silent reading had not been discovered

Question 32. The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “ .”

A. attracting attention B. for everybody’s use

C. most preferable. D. widely used

Question 33. The development of silent reading during the last century indicated

A. an increase in the number of books. B. an increase in the average age of readers.

C. a change in the nature of reading D. a change in the status of literate people.

Question 34. Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of

A. the increase in literacy B. the decreasing number of listeners

C. the decreasing need to read aloud D. the development of libraries

Question 35. The phrase “a specialized readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “ ”

A. a reading volume for particular professionals.

B. a status for reader specialized in mass media.

C. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge

D. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge

Question 36. All of the following might be the factors that effected the continuation of the old

shard literacy culture EXCEPT

A. the specialized readership B. the inappropriate reading skills

C. the diversity of reading materials. D. the print mass media

Question 37. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

A. The decline of reading aloud was wholly due to its distracting effect

B. Reading aloud was more common in the past than it is today

C. Not all printed mass media was appropriate for reading aloud

D. The change in reading habits was partly due to the social, cultural and technological changes.

Question 38. The writer of this passage is attempting to

A. show how reading methods have improved B. encourage the growth of reading

C. explain how reading habits have developed D. change people’s attitudes to reading

For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They

provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh

environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable

environmental benefits.

One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen,

which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same

amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities

cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials

such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more

quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of

these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other

green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.

Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already

being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment.

However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens

to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of

starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands

of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others

are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars

and a few hours of work.

Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces,

but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon

dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect,

which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing

heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in

the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating

bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving

them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone

can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.

Question 39. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the

following word groups?

A. allay, alleviate, reduce B. absorb, intake, consume

C. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify D. obliterate, destroy, annihilate

Question 40. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that

A. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens

B. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city

C. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens

D. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens

Question 41. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the

main difference between parks and rooftop gardens?

A. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.

B. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.

C. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.

D. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.

Question 42. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens EXCEPT

A. savings on heating and cooling costs

B. better food for city dwellers

C. improved air quality

D. increased space for private relaxation

Question 43. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that

they

A. do not require the use of valuable urban land

B. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect

C. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen

D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces

Question 44. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as

A. informative B. argumentative C. descriptive D. passionate

Question 45. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A. A thesis is presented and then supported.

B. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.

C. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.

D. A viewpoint is established and then defended.

Not so long ago almost any students who successfully completed a university degree or

diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic institutions,

competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even in Hong

Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs.

Most careers organization highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of

securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and

presenting them well to prospective employers

Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of

assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within

their subject area. Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the

relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring or

others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific skills

acquired from work experience should also be give careful thought

The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think about

how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this, graduates can

study job vacancies and information in newspapers or the can visit a career office, write to possible

employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be involved in a

particular profession. After studying all various options, they should be in a position to make

informed comparisons between various careers

Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application

forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or spelling

errors. Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their abilities and

work experience in more depth, with example if possible. They should try to balance their own

abilities with the employer’s needs, explain why they are interested in a career with the particular

company and try to show that they already know something about the company and its activities

When graduates are asked to attend for the interview, they should prepare properly by

finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the

interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and helpful

answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about. This is

much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer

There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills, and

determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them

Question 46: In paragraph 1, “those days are gone, even in Hong Kong”. Suggests that

A. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere

B. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good job

C. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries

D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates

Question 47: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to

A. generous B. reasonable C. future D. ambitious

Question 48: According to paragraph 3, job seekers should:

A. aim to give a balanced account of what the employer needs

B. divide the time equally between listening to the interviewer and speaking

C. discuss their own abilities in relation to what the employer is looking for

D. attempt to show the employer is looking for

Question 49: According to paragraph 3, graduates should

A. only consider careers which are suited to them as people

B. include information about personal attitudes and values in their job application

C. consider how lucky they are to be able to find careers that provide such things

D. consider the values of their parents and families as well their own wishes

Question 50: The advice given in the first sentences of paragraph 4 is to _

A. find out what jobs are available and the opportunities for future promotion

B. examine the careers available and how these will be affected in the future

C. look at the information on, and probably future location of, various careers

D. study the opportunities and the kinds of training that will be available

Question 51: According to paragraph 4, graduates should

A. find a good position and then compare it with other careers

B. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job

C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons

D. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the complaints they want

Question 52: Which of the following does “this” in paragraph 6 refers to?

A. Not being afraid to be unsure B. Giving positive and helpful answers to the questions

C. Being prepared to ask questions about things they don’t understand

D. Being unsure about the questions

Question 53: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that

A. interviewees should ask question if they can’t think of an answer

B. pretending to understand a question is better than giving a suitable answer

C. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand

D. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers

Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among

vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female

lays egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear

The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for

example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant

have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food, feed their brood

or queen, or even clean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become

specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores

In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a

Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and her workers, capture the pupal brood, and

transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers

until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the mixed￾species nest. The Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both species.

They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases

The true extent of the Polyergus and dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when

the worker population grows too large for existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting site,

return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a period

that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus eggs, larvae,

and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen

Of the approximately 8000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and some

200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other ants

Question 54: Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage?

A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks

B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica

C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants belonging to

the genus Formica

D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies

Question 55: The word “raise” is closest in meaning to

A. rear B. lift C. collect D. increase

Question 56: The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds because they

A. share their nests with each other B. are closely related species

C. raise the young of their birds D. are social parasites

Question 57: The word “it” refers to

A. species B. nest C. egg D. female

Question 58: What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants, however,

are the supreme social parasites”

A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica

B. The Formica have developed specialized roles

C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica

D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves

Question 59: The word “excavate” is closest in meaning to

A. find B. clean C. repair D. dig

Question 60: According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to ants

beginning to the genus Formica EXCEPT

A. dulotic B. captured brood C. developing pupae D. worker population

ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER?

Do you think you're smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn,

a professor at a New Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who

have taken IQ tests have gotten increasingly better scores-on average, three points better for every

decade that has passed. This improvement is known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to

know what is behind it.

IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than

knowledge. Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result

of our environment and experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly

to be explained by heredity. So what was happening in the 20th century that was helping people

achieve higher scores on intelligence tests?

Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the

improved test scores simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so

many tests, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. Others have

pointed to better nutrition since it results in babies being born larger, healthier, and with more brain

development than in the past. Another possible explanation is a change in educational styles, with

teachers encouraging children to learn by discovering things for themselves rather than just

memorizing information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem solving that

intelligence tests require.

Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and

discovered that the improvement in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test. Test takers didn't

do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test; they did better on sections that

required a special kind of reasoning and problem solving. For example, one part of the test shows

a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them and

decide which shape should be added to the set.

According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our

lives increases. Every time you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell

phone, you are exercising exactly the kind of thinking and problem solving that helps you do well

on one kind of intelligence test. So are you really smarter than your parents? In one very specific

way, you may be.

Question 61. The Flynn effect is .

A. used to measure intelligent

B. an increase in IQ test scores over time

C. unknown in some parts of the world

D. not connected to our experiences

Question 62. The Flynn effect must be the result of .

A. heredity

B. our environment and experiences

C. taking fewer tests

D. memorizing information

Question 63. IQ tests evaluate .

A. our knowledge

B. our environment

C. our intelligence

D. our memories

Question 64. Which sentence from the article gives a main idea?

A. Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect.

B. Because we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform

better on any test.

C. Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test.

D. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for

pattern and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.

Question 65. According to the article, newer education techniques include_ .

A. exposure to many tests

B. children finding things out themselves